Human Histology - O.D. Lutsyk 2003

Test Questions

Introduction

1. Choose one correct answer

The resolving power of a Light Microscope is:

a) 2 µm; b) 2 mm; c) 0.2 µm; d) 0.2 nm.

2. Choose one correct answer

Basophilia is:

a) staining of histological structures with neutral Dyes;

b) staining of histological structures with basic dyes;

c) staining of histological structures with acidic dyes;

d) A change in the color of the basic dye.

3. Choose one correct answer

The ability of histological structures to change the color of the basic dye is:

a) basophilia; b) oxyphilia; c) neutrophilia; d) metachromasia.

1.1. Cell Theory. Non-cellular Structures of the Organism

1. Choose one correct answer

Embedding of the material during the preparation of permanent histological slides is carried out in:

a) alcohol; b) formalin; c) paraffin.

2. Choose one correct answer

Striated Muscle fibers are:

a) syncytium;

b) anucleated non-cellular Structure;

c) symplast;

d) amorphous substance.

3. Choose one correct answer

Collagen fibers are:

a) symplast;

b) syncytium;

c) amorphous substance;

d) non-cellular anucleate structure.

4. Select one correct answer

A histological structure bounded by a Plasma Membrane, containing a large amount of Cytoplasm and multiple nuclei, is a:

a) syncytium; b) amorphous substance; c) symplast; d) transcytosis.

5. Select one correct answer

The smallest Cells of The Human Body measure:

a) 4-6 µm; b) 0.2 µm; c) 100-150 µm; d) 4 mm; e) 100-200 nm.

6. Select one correct answer

A syncytium is:

a) a cellular association;

b) a protein;

c) a type of cell contact;

d) a fibrous structure.

1.2. Cell Membrane. Cytoplasm

1. Select one correct answer

The structural basis of an elementary biological membrane is:

a) phospholipid molecules;

b) tubulin molecules;

c) DNA;

d) RNA.

2. Select one correct answer

The marker enzyme of Lysosomes is:

a) RNase;

б) DNase;

в) catalase;

г) acid phosphatase.

3. Choose two correct Answers

Among the structures listed below, indicate the submicroscopic membranous Organelles:

a) Mitochondria;

б) Golgi apparatus;

в) Ribosomes;

г) Endoplasmic reticulum;

д) microfilaments; e) Peroxisomes.

4. Choose two correct answers

The following cell structures have a double biomembrane:

а) lysosomes;

б) mitochondria;

в) Plasmalemma;

г) nuclear envelope;

д) centrosome;

е) microtubules.

5. Match the letters to the numbers

1) mitochondria; 2) lysosomes; 3) rough endoplasmic reticulum; 4) free ribosomes (Polysomes):

а) synthesis of Proteins for export;

б) cellular Digestion;

в) energy production;

г) synthesis of proteins for The Cell's own needs.

6. Choose one correct answer

Ion Exchange between cells is provided by:

a) simple junction;

b) tight junction (zonula occludens);

c) desmosome;

d) gap junction (nexus).

7. Choose one correct answer

The marker enzyme for peroxisomes is:

a) acid phosphatase;

b) Ribonuclease;

c) catalase;

d) deoxyribonuclease.

8. Choose one correct answer Ribosomes consist of:

a) DNA and protein;

b) DNA, RNA, and protein;

c) RNA and Protein;

d) RNA, protein, and Lipids.

9. Choose two correct answers

Among the structures listed below, indicate the non-membranous submicroscopic organelles:

a) ribosomes;

b) endoplasmic reticulum;

c) peroxisomes;

d) microtubules;

e) Golgi apparatus;

f) centrosome.

10. Match the letters to the numbers

1) smooth endoplasmic reticulum; 2) peroxisomes; 3) Golgi apparatus; 4) centrosome; 5) microfilaments:

a) cellular detoxification;

b) chromosome segregation during Cell Division; c) lipid and carbohydrate synthesis;

d) Cytoskeleton and cell motility;

e) formation of secretory products.

11. Choose the single correct answer

The cellular uptake of extracellular fluid droplets is known as:

a) phagocytosis; b) pinocytosis; c) recretion; d) excretion.

12. Choose the single correct answer

A cell is treated with colchicine, a drug that disrupts microtubules. Which cellular function will be impaired As a result:

a) ability to synthesize proteins;

b) ability to synthesize ATP;

c) motility;

d) ability to synthesize CARBOHYDRATES and lipids?

13. Choose the single correct answer

Organelles that contain their own DNA are:

a) lysosomes; b) ribosomes; c) Golgi apparatus; d) mitochondria.

14. Choose the two correct answers

From the structures listed below, select the microscopic membranous organelles:

a) endoplasmic reticulum;

b) centrosome;

c) ribosomes;

d) mitochondria;

e) peroxisomes;

e) Golgi apparatus.

15. Match the letters with the numbers

1) free ribosomes; 2) centrosome; 3) Golgi apparatus; 4) rough endoplasmic reticulum:

a) Separation of Chromosomes during cell division;

b) synthesis of proteins "for export";

c) formation of secretory products;

d) synthesis of proteins for the cell's own needs.

16. Choose the single correct answer

Desmin is a protein that is a component of intermediate microfilaments of:

a) Muscle tissue;

b) Epithelial Tissue;

c) Connective Tissue;

d) Nervous Tissue.

17. Choose the single correct answer. The process of cellular uptake of substances is:

a) exocytosis; b) endocytosis; c) secretion; d) excretion.

18. Choose the single correct answer

The microtubule system of a centriole is described by the formula:

a) (9 X 2)+ 2;

b) (9 X 3) + 2;

c) (9 X 3) + 0;

d) (9 X 2) + 0.

19. Choose two correct answers

Among the structures listed below, choose the non-membranous organelles:

a) mitochondria;

b) Golgi apparatus;

c) microfilaments;

d) ribosomes;

e) endoplasmic reticulum;

f) peroxisomes.

20. Match the letters to the numbers

1) Golgi apparatus; 2) peroxisomes; 3) lysosomes; 4) smooth endoplasmic reticulum; 5) ribosomes:

a) cellular digestion;

b) formation of secretory products;

c) synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates;

d) cellular detoxification;

e) Protein Synthesis.

21. Choose the single correct answer

Excretion is:

a) Elimination of Metabolic waste products;

b) uptake of fluid by the cell;

c) removal of structural cell components beyond its boundaries;

d) discharge of secretory products by the cell.

22. Choose the single correct answer

Vimentin is a protein that is a component of Intermediate filaments in:

a) epithelial tissue;

b) muscle tissue;

c) nervous tissue;

d) connective tissue.

23. Choose the single correct answer

Microtubules are composed of:

а) desmin; б) tubulin; в) keratin; г) vimentin.

24. Match the organelles below with their corresponding Functions

1) centrosome; 2) lysosomes; 3) mitochondria; 4) rough endoplasmic reticulum; 5) peroxisomes:

а) cellular digestion;

б) synthesis of proteins "for export";

в) cellular detoxification;

г) generation and storage of energy;

д) separation of chromosomes during cell division.

1.3. Nucleus. Cell Reproduction

1. Choose the single correct answer

The period of the Cell Cycle during which chromosome duplication takes place:

а) metaphase of mitosis;

б) anaphase of mitosis;

в) S-phase of interphase;

г) G₁-phase of interphase.

2. Choose the single correct answer

The nucleolus performs the following function:

а) energy storage;

б) lipid synthesis;

в) cellular digestion;

г) ribosome biogenesis.

3. Choose two correct answers

Select the features of heterochromatin:

а) functionally active;

б) corresponds to condensed regions of chromosomes;

c) invisible;

d) strongly stained;

e) corresponds to decondensed chromosome regions.

4. Choose the single correct answer

The G₀ phase of the cell cycle is:

a) a delayed G₂ phase;

b) a delayed S phase;

c) a delayed G₁ phase;

d) early prophase of mitosis.

5. Choose the single correct answer

The perinuclear space is:

a) a nuclear pore;

b) the space between nucleolonema loops;

c) the gap between the nuclear envelope membranes;

d) the space surrounding the outer nuclear membrane.

6. Choose two correct answers

Select the characteristics of euchromatin:

a) functionally active;

b) strongly stained;

c) poorly stained;

d) corresponds to condensed chromosome regions;

e) visible under a light microscope.

7. Choose the single correct answer

Heterochromatin is:

a) condensed chromosome regions;

b) decondensed regions of chromosomes;

c) nucleosome;

d) unstained Chromatin.

8. Choose one correct answer

The number of chromatids in a chromosome at the beginning of prophase:

a) one; b) two; c) three; d) four.

9. Match the following manifestations to the phases of mitosis:

1) telophase; 2) anaphase; 3) early prophase; 4) metaphase; 5) late prophase:

a) chromosomes align at the equatorial plane of the cell;

b) chromosomes form a loose tangle, the nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear;

c) chromosomes move toward the opposite poles of the cell;

d) chromosomes form a dense tangle while the nuclear envelope and nucleolus remain intact;

e) daughter nuclei form at the poles of the cell.

10. Choose one correct answer

The nucleolus is formed from:

a) the primary constriction of chromosomes;

b) the secondary constriction of chromosomes;

c) chromosomal centromeres;

d) lysosomes.

11. Choose one correct answer

During the G₁ phase of the cell cycle, a chromosome consists of:

a) two chromatids;

b) four chromatids;

c) three chromatids;

d) one chromatid.

12. Choose two correct answers. A nucleosome is:

a) a chromosome;

b) a structural unit of chromatin;

c) a granular component of the nucleolus;

d) a nuclear pore;

e) a complex of DNA and histone proteins.

13. Choose one correct answer

The structure of the interphase nucleus that stains well and forms a specific nuclear pattern in different cell types is:

a) chromosomes; b) nucleolus; c) euchromatin; d) heterochromatin.

14. Choose one correct answer

The movement of chromosomes toward the cell poles is observed in:

a) prophase; b) metaphase; c) interphase; d) anaphase.

15. Choose one correct answer. The nuclear envelope features:

a) cristae; b) microvilli; c) pores; d) nexus junctions.

16. Choose one correct answer

Eukaryotic cells are:

a) anucleate cells;

b) cells lacking ribosomes;

c) cells containing a nucleus.

17. Choose two correct answers

Cell structures that possess a double biomembrane:

a) lysosomes;

b) ribosomes;

c) mitochondria;

d) nucleolemma;

d) peroxisomes;

e) microtubules; f) microfilaments.

2.1. Sex Cells. Fertilization. Cleavage. Implantation

1. Choose one correct answer. Implantation is:

a) Formation of the Placenta;

b) embedding of the embryo into the endometrium;

c) Gastrulation;

d) formation of the amnion.

2. Choose one incorrect answer

As a result of fertilization:

a) the sex of the child is determined;

b) species Variability is ensured due to a new combination of genetic material;

c) the haploid set of chromosomes is preserved;

d) cleavage is initiated.

3. Choose three correct answers

The fertilization envelope has the following features:

a) it persists for six days after fertilization;

b) it disappears immediately after fertilization;

c) it is produced by the oocyte together with follicular cells;

d) it prevents premature adhesion of the blastocyst.

4. Choose one correct answer

The normal site of fertilization is:

a) the Uterus;

b) the Abdominal cavity;

c) the uterine part of the fallopian tube;

г) ampulla of the Uterine tube;

д) Vagina.

2.2. Gastrulation. Histo- and Organogenesis. Extraembryonic Organs

1. Choose one incorrect answer

The following structures are formed during neurulation:

а) neural tube;

б) notochord;

в) ganglionic plate;

д) neural crest.

2. Choose one incorrect answer

The umbilical cord includes the following structural components:

а) two Arteries;

б) one vein;

в) mucous connective tissue;

г) cytotrophoblast;

д) amniotic epithelium;

е) remnant of the allantois; є) yolk stalk.

3. Choose one incorrect answer

The placenta performs the following functions:

а) trophic; б) respiratory; в) excretory; г) hematopoietic; д) endocrine; е) protective.

4. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, and 3

The cellular material of somites is divided into three parts: 1) dermatome; 2) myotome; 3) sclerotome. They serve as sources for The Development of:

а) cartilaginous and bone Tissues of the Skeleton;

б) connective tissue layer of the Skin;

в) skeletal Muscles;

d) of The Heart muscle;

e) of the Adrenal Glands.

5. Choose two correct answers

During the fourth week of Embryogenesis:

a) embryonic Circulation begins;

b) implantation is completed;

c) gastrulation takes place;

d) neurulation takes place.

6. Choose three correct answers

The type and shape of the human placenta:

a) epitheliochorial;

b) discoid;

c) desmochorial;

d) hemochorial;

e) zonary;

f) endotheliochorial; g) villous.

7. Choose one correct answer The umbilical cord is formed from:

a) the primitive streak;

b) the yolk sac;

c) the connecting stalk;

d) the embryonic disc.

8. Choose two incorrect answers

The hypoblast has the following characteristics:

a) develops from the inner layer of the cytotrophoblast;

b) forms the roof of the primary yolk sac;

c) transforms into the embryonic endoderm during the third week of embryogenesis;

d) forms the inner layer of Cells of the embryonic disc.

9. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3.

Three PARTS OF THE decidua are distinguished:

1) decidua basalis; 2) decidua capsularis; 3) decidua parietalis. They are located:

a) between the smooth chorion and the uterine cavity;

b) between the villous chorion and the basal layer of the endometrium;

c) between the uterine cavity and the basal layer of the endometrium;

d) between the amnion and the chorion;

e) between the myometrium and the perimetrium.

10. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3.

Three germ layers are distinguished: 1) ectoderm; 2) mesoderm; 3) endoderm. Their derivatives are:

a) epidermis;

b) epithelium of the Kidneys and Gonads;

c) Liver and Pancreas;

d) tooth enamel;

e) cardiac muscle;

f) adrenal cortex;

g) epithelium of the midgut.

3.1. Histology. Epithelial Tissues. Glandular Epithelium

1. Choose one correct answer

A tissue is:

a) a collection of cells and fibers that Complement each other;

b) a collection of cells and extracellular structures united by a common origin, structure, and function;

c) a collection of fibers and the Extracellular matrix formed phylogenetically;

d) a collection of cells, fibers, and extracellular matrix.

2. Choose one correct answer

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in:

а) the epidermis of the skin;

б) the Cytology/practical/76.html">Cornea of the eye;

в) the Small Intestine;

г) The Stomach;

д) the fallopian tube;

е) the Kidney.

3. Choose two correct answers for items 1 and 2

Glands are classified into: 1) exocrine; 2) endocrine. Their characteristic features are:

a) absence of excretory ducts;

b) presence of secretory end pieces and excretory ducts;

c) release of secretory products onto The surface of the epithelial sheet;

d) release of secretory products into Blood, Lymph, or tissue fluid.

4. Choose one incorrect answer. The following types of tissues are distinguished:

a) muscular; b) epithelial; c) reticular; d) nervous; e) connective.

5. Choose one incorrect answer. Simple (single-layered) epithelia include:

а) mesothelium;

б) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium;

в) transitional epithelium;

г) endothelium;

д) simple columnar epithelium.

6. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, 4

The following types of glands are distinguished: 1) endocrine; 2) holocrine; 3) apocrine; 4) intraepithelial. Examples of these glands are:

a) Sebaceous Glands;

b) Pituitary gland;

c) Mammary Glands;

d) goblet exocrinocytes.

7. Choose the single incorrect answer. The following types of tissues are distinguished:

a) epithelial;

b) Tissues of the Internal Environment (connective);

c) muscular;

d) nervous;

e) skeletal.

8. Choose the single incorrect answer. The corneal epithelium includes the following layers:

a) basal; b) spinous; c) lucidum; d) superficial.

9. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, 4

The following types of glandular secretion are distinguished: 1) merocrine; 2) microapocrine; 3) macroapocrine; 4) holocrine. Their characteristics are:

a) detachment of microvilli during secretion;

b) destruction of the entire cell during secretion;

c) detachment of the apical portion of the cell;

d) release of secretion without cell damage.

10. Choose the single incorrect answer. The following types of tissues are distinguished:

a) epithelial; b) connective; c) pigment; d) nervous; e) muscular.

11. Choose the single incorrect answer

Epithelial tissue is characterized by the following morphological features:

a) presence of a cell sheet;

b) presence of a basement membrane;

c) absence of Blood Vessels;

d) abundant extracellular matrix;

e) polar Cell Differentiation.

12. Choose the single incorrect answer. Endocrine glands:

a) can be unicellular or multicellular;

b) release secretory products onto the surface of an epithelial sheet;

c) secrete their products into blood, lymph, or tissue fluid;

d) have a trabecular or follicular structural Organization.

13. Choose the single incorrect answer. The following types of tissues are distinguished:

a) nervous; b) muscular; c) glandular; d) connective; e) epithelial.

14. Choose the single incorrect answer. Exocrine glands:

a) secrete products onto the surface of an epithelial sheet;

b) function via merocrine, apocrine, or holocrine secretion;

c) release secretory products into the internal environment of the body;

d) are classified into simple and branched/complex;

e) are classified into exo- and endoepithelial.

15. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Among epithelia, the following are distinguished: 1) mesothelium; 2) stratified squamous non-keratinized;

3) Stratified squamous keratinized; 4) transitional; 5) pseudostratified ciliated. Their localization is:

a) Urinary Bladder;

b) serous membranes;

c) cornea of the eye;

d) Trachea;

e) skin.

3.2. Tissues of the internal environment. Morphology and FUNCTIONS OF BLOOD

1. Choose the single correct answer

Erythrocytes, which can be seen in all histological preparations and are most frequently used as a standard to estimate the size of microstructures, have an average diameter of:

a) 0.72 µm; b) 7.2 µm; c) 7.2 Å; d) 72 µm; e) 72 Å.

2. Choose one correct answer

A patient has impaired fibrinogen synthesis. Which blood function will be affected as a result:

a) protective; b) trophic; c) respiratory; d) clotting.

3. Choose one correct answer

Differential WHITE BLOOD CELL count data: 1) neutrophil granulocytes 67%; 2) basophils - 1%; 3) eosinophils - 3%; 4) lymphocytes - 24%; 5) monocytes - 5%. To whom does this blood belong:

a) a one-year-old child;

b) a five-year-old child;

c) an adult?

4. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1 and 2

In a human blood smear preparation stained with Romanowsky's stain, two leukocytes are visible in the field of view: 1) a cell with a diameter of 15 µm, a kidney-shaped nucleus, and faintly basophilic (blue-gray) cytoplasm; 2) a cell with a diameter of 12 µm, whose nucleus consists of two segments and whose cytoplasm is filled with bright pink granules. What are these cells:

a) lymphocyte; b) basophil; c) eosinophil; d) neutrophil; e) monocyte?

5. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, and 4

The leukocyte differential count of a healthy person shows the following percentages:

1) 72%; 2) 7%; 3) 0.5%; 4) 24%; 5) 2%. Which types of leukocytes do they correspond to:

a) segmented neutrophil granulocytes;

b) lymphocytes;

c) eosinophils;

d) basophils;

e) monocytes?

6. Choose one correct answer

A patient has a decreased Hemoglobin level. Which blood function will be impaired:

a) protective; b) trophic; c) respiratory; d) homeostatic?

7. Choose one correct answer

About one-third (33%) of circulating peripheral Blood Leukocytes are:

a) basophils; b) eosinophils; c) lymphocytes; d) monocytes; e) neutrophils.

3.3. Hematopoiesis (Hemopoiesis)

1. Match each of items 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 with the single correct answer.

The various histogenetic lineages (differons) of hematopoiesis include the following blast cells: 1) proerythroblasts; 2) myeloblasts; 3) monocytoblasts; 4) lymphoblasts;

5) megakaryoblasts. To which hematopoietic lineages do they belong:

a) monocyte;

b) erythroid;

c) lymphocytic;

d) granulocytic;

e) thrombocytic?

2. Choose the single correct answer.

The leukocyte differential count shows 32% neutrophils and 56% lymphocytes. Whose blood is this:

a) a newborn infant;

b) a one-year-old child;

c) a five-year-old child;

d) an adult?

3. Choose the single correct answer.

The leukocyte differential count shows: 1) neutrophils – 45%; 2) lymphocytes – 45%. Whose blood is this:

a) a one-year-old child;

b) a five-year-old child;

c) an adult?

3.4. Connective Tissues. Proper Connective Tissues. Connective Tissues with Special Properties

1. Match each of items 1 and 2 with two correct answers.

Cells of loose connective tissue: 1) macrophage; 2) adipocyte.

Their morphofunctional characteristics:

a) large cell containing a lipid droplet within the cytoplasm;

b) distinct cell margins forming cytoplasmic projections;

c) flattened nucleus located peripherally;

d) abundant lysosomes in the cytoplasm;

e) the cell produces Antibodies.

2. Match each item in points 1, 2, and 3 with the correct single answer.

The cells of loose connective tissue include: 1) fibroblasts; 2) tissue basophils; 3) plasmocytes. Their functions:

a) storage of energy reserves;

b) production of antibodies;

c) synthesis of heparin and histamine;

d) phagocytosis;

e) synthesis of fibers and the ground amorphous extracellular matrix.

3. Match each item in points 1, 2, and 3 with the correct single answer.

Fibrous structures of loose connective tissue: 1) collagen fibers; 2) elastic fibers; 3) reticular fibers. Their morphofunctional features:

a) turn black when treated with silver salts and form a network;

b) capable of forming unbranched bundles, stain oxyphilically, are highly tensile, and yield glue upon boiling;

c) arranged individually, branch out, stain with orcein, and ensure the return of structures to their original position once the applied force ceases.

4. Select two correct features for each of items 1 and 2.

Cells of loose connective tissue: 1) plasmocyte; 2) tissue basophil (mast cell). Their morphological features:

a) cytoplasm packed with large basophilic metachromatic granules;

b) oval-shaped cell with basophilic cytoplasm and an eccentrically positioned nucleus, the cytoplasm near The Nucleus forms a pale halo (the "hof");

c) large cell containing a lipid droplet in the cytoplasm, with a flattened peripheral nucleus.

5. Match each item in points 1, 2, and 3 with the correct single answer.

Among the cells of loose connective tissue are: 1) plasmocytes; 2) fibroblasts; 3) adipocytes. Their functions:

a) formation of fibers and the main intercellular substance;

b) synthesis of heparin and histamine;

c) deposition of energy substrates;

d) production of antibodies;

e) phagocytosis.

3.5. Skeletal Tissues: Cartilage and bone

1. Choose the single best answer. An osteon is:

а) a Bone tissue cell;

б) a bone lamella;

в) a system of bone lamellae arranged around the diaphysis of a tubular bone;

г) a system of bone lamellae in the diaphysis of a tubular bone arranged concentrically around a nutrient vessel.

2. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, and 3

There are 3 types of cartilage tissue: 1) hyaline; 2) elastic; 3) fibrocartilage. Their localization is:

a) auricle, external acoustic meatus, auditory tube;

b) tendons, fibrous membranes;

c) articular surfaces of bones; respiratory tract, cartilaginous parts of the Ribs;

d) intervertebral discs, Pubic Symphysis, sites of tendon attachment to bones.

3. Choose the single best answer. A bone lamella is:

a) a bundle of multidirectional collagen fibers;

b) an osteocyte with adjacent collagen fibers;

c) a bundle of parallel collagen fibers;

d) a group of osteoblasts.

4. Choose the single incorrect answer

Cartilage is covered by perichondrium, which performs the following functions:

a) trophic;

b) regenerative;

c) protective;

d) provides interstitial growth;

e) provides appositional growth.

5. Choose two correct answers

The main cellular elements of cartilage tissue are:

a) adipocytes;

b) chondrocytes;

c) monocytes;

d) osteocytes;

e) lymphocytes;

f) chondroblasts; g) fibroblasts;

h) osteoblasts.

6. Choose one correct answer for items 1, 2, 3

Bone tissue cells: 1) osteocytes; 2) osteoblasts; 3) osteoclasts. Their morphological and functional characteristics:

a) cubic, pyramidal, or polygonal in shape, with a well-developed granular Endoplasmic reticulum and high alkaline phosphatase activity, actively producing the intercellular substance of bone;

b) large multinucleated cells of monocytic origin that break down bone and calcified cartilage;

c) cells with processes whose bodies lie within lacunae and whose processes lie within canaliculi, maintaining bone tissue METABOLISM.

7. Choose one incorrect answer. Isogenic groups of cartilage tissue are:

a) groups of chondrocytes lying within a common lacuna;

b) groups of chondrocytes originating from a single common precursor cell;

c) groups of chondroblasts sharing a common origin;

d) groups of cells that have not separated during cartilage maturation.

8. Choose one correct answer for items 1, 2

The terms: 1) avascular tissue and 2) appositional growth refer to:

a) cartilage tissue;

b) bone tissue;

c) both cartilage and bone tissue;

d) neither cartilage nor bone tissue.

9. Choose the single correct answer

Postnatal bone growth occurs through:

a) interstitial osteogenesis;

b) appositional osteogenesis;

c) both interstitial and appositional osteogenesis.

10. Choose the single incorrect answer. Hyaline cartilage is located in:

a) the respiratory tract;

b) the junctions between the ribs and the Sternum;

c) the epiglottis;

d) the metaepiphyseal growth plate;

e) the embryonic skeleton.

3.6. Muscular Tissue

1. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, and 3

Types of muscle tissue: 1) smooth; 2) striated skeletal; 3) striated cardiac. Their characteristics:

a) the tissue is composed of cells arranged in chains to form fibers, with intercalated discs forming at the Intercellular junctions;

b) the tissue is composed of spindle-shaped cells with rod-shaped nuclei located centrally and myofilaments situated peripherally;

c) the tissue is composed of muscle fibers formed by myosymplasts and myosatellitocytes, with nuclei located beneath the plasmalemma and myofibrils in the center of the fibers.

2. Choose the single correct answer. A sarcomere is:

a) the segment of a myofibril spanning between two telophragmata (Z-lines);

b) a mitochondrion of a muscle fiber;

c) The endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber; d) line 1 + 1/2 of disc I + 1/2 of disc A + M.

3. Choose one incorrect answer

During sarcomere contraction, the following is observed:

a) movement of the ends of Actin filaments toward the middle of the A band and narrowing of the H zone;

b) decrease in the width of the I band;

c) decrease in the width of the A band;

d) approximation of the Z line to the ends of the Myosin filaments.

4. Choose one correct answer. A triad of a Skeletal Muscle fiber is:

a) a transverse tubule of the sarcolemma, a terminal cistern of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and an intercalated disc;

b) two transverse tubules of the sarcolemma and one terminal cistern of the endoplasmic reticulum;

c) one transverse tubule of the sarcolemma with two adjacent terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum;

d) one transverse tubule of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and two terminal cisterns of the sarcolemma.

5. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Types of muscle tissue by origin: 1) Smooth muscle tissue of Internal Organs and blood vessels; 2) striated skeletal; 3) striated cardiac; 4) myoepithelial cells of glands; 5) myoneurocytes of the iris of the eye. Their histogenetic type:

a) epidermal; b) somatic; c) neural; d) mesenchymal; e) coelomic.

3.7. Nervous Tissue

1. Choose one correct answer. The myelin sheath is:

a) an extension of the nerve cell membrane;

b) the neurolemmocyte cytoplasm;

c) mesaxon loops concentrically layered around the axon;

d) the axon;

e) the basal lamina of the perimysial fiber.

2. Choose two correct features for items 1, 2

Nerve cell processes:

1) axons; 2) dendrites. Their morphofunctional characteristics:

a) branching, predominantly short;

b) unbranched, mostly long;

c) conduct impulses away from the perikaryon;

d) conduct impulses toward the perikaryon.

3. Choose one correct answer for items 1, 2, and 3

Types of Neurons: 1) unipolar; 2) bipolar; 3) multipolar. Their morphofunctional characteristics:

a) a nerve cell with two processes (an axon and a dendrite);

b) a nerve cell with a single process (an axon);

c) a nerve cell with multiple processes (one axon and many dendrites);

d) a nerve cell with a single process (a dendrite).

4. Choose one correct answer for items 1, 2, and 3

Morphological types of neurons: 1) bipolar; 2) pseudounipolar; 3) multipolar. Their localization: a) spinal ganglia;

b) Cerebral Cortex;

c) retina of the eye.

5. Choose one incorrect answer

Macroglia includes:

a) oligodendrocytes;

b) glial macrophages;

c) ependymocytes;

d) fibrous astrocytes;

e) protoplasmic astrocytes;

f) neurolemmocytes.

4.1. Cardiovascular system

1. Choose one correct answer

Elements of the heart's conduction system are formed by:

a) processes of neurons from parasympathetic nerve ganglia;

b) modified cardiomyocytes;

c) highly specialized connective tissue cells;

d) modified smooth myocytes.

2. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3

The wall of the heart consists of: 1) endocardium; 2) myocardium; 3) epicardium.

Their characteristic morphological elements are:

a) endothelium;

b) Purkinje fibers;

c) mesothelium;

d) intercalated discs;

e) smooth myocytes.

3. Choose one correct answer

The elastic-type artery has the following structural features in its tunica media:

a) smooth myocytes arranged in an oblique spiral with a small number of elastic fibers between them;

b) an equal ratio of smooth myocytes and elastic elements;

c) contains 40–50 elastic fenestrated membranes interspersed with smooth myocytes and elastic fibers.

4. Choose one correct answer

The vessel has the shape of a flattened tube with one blind end, lined with large endothelial cells anchored to surrounding structures by anchoring filaments. What vessel is this:

a) venule;

b) blood capillary;

c) arteriole;

d) lymphatic capillary;

e) non-muscular vein?

5. Choose one correct answer

The vessel wall is formed by endothelium, a basement membrane, and pericytes. This is:

a) arteriole;

b) venule;

c) blood capillary;

d) lymphatic capillary;

e) medium-sized artery.

4.2. Organs of Hematopoiesis and Immune Defense

1. Select two correct answers for items 1 and 2

The organs of hematopoiesis and immune defense include: 1) Lymph Nodes;

2) Spleen. They are characterized by:

a) afferent lymphatic vessels;

b) periarterial lymphatic sheaths;

c) marginal sinus;

d) central arteries.

2. Select two correct answers. Thymic epithelioreticular cells participate in The formation of:

a) synapses;

b) Hassall's corpuscles;

c) intercalated discs;

d) intercellular bridges;

e) blood-Thymus barrier.

3. Select one incorrect answer

Cellular elements essential for the normal functioning of the thymus:

a) thymocytes (T-lymphocytes);

b) epithelioreticular cells;

c) B-lymphocytes;

d) plasmocytes.

4. Choose one correct answer

The thymus-dependent zone of a lymph node is: a) medullary cords; b) lymphatic follicles; c) paracortical zone; d) subcapsular sinus.

5. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2

The parenchyma of the spleen comprises: 1) white pulp; 2) red pulp. They are formed by:

a) Billroth's cords;

b) periarterial lymphatic sheaths;

c) lymphatic follicles (nodules);

d) venous sinuses.

4.3. Endocrine System

1. Choose two correct answers for each of items 1, 2, 3, and 4

The Hypothalamus contains the following nuclei: 1) arcuate; 2) supraoptic; 3) paraventricular;

4) ventromedial. They produce the following Hormones:

a) oxytocin; b) liberins; c) vasopressin; d) statins.

2. Choose two incorrect answers:

The Thyroid Gland has the following morphofunctional features:

a) is composed of follicles;

b) contains interfollicular islands;

c) contains acidophilic and basophilic endocrinocytes;

d) is composed of thyrocytes;

e) contains parafollicular C-cells;

f) produces thyroxine and Calcitonin;

g) produces luteinizing and lactogenic hormones.

3. Choose two incorrect answers

The cells of the anterior pituitary produce:

a) somatotropic hormone (STH);

b) thyrotropic hormone (TSH);

c) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH);

d) lactotropic hormone (LTH);

e) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH);

f) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); g) luteinizing hormone (LH);

h) vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).

4. Choose two incorrect answers

The parathyroid gland has the following morphofunctional characteristics:

a) it is composed of follicles;

b) it is composed of cords of parathyroid cells;

c) it produces a mineralocorticoid hormone;

d) it produces a hormone that increases blood calcium levels;

e) hypofunction leads to the development of tetany.

5. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Below are some diseases (syndromes) caused by endocrine gland dysfunctions: 1) cretinism (disproportionate dwarfs with mental retardation); 2) Diabetes Mellitus; 3) diabetes insipidus; 4) Myxedema; 5) weak uterine contractions during childbirth. Their occurrence is associated with:

a) hypofunction of the cells of the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus;

b) hypofunction of B-cells of the pancreatic islets;

c) hypofunction of the thyroid gland in adults;

d) hypofunction of the cells of the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus;

e) hypofunction of the thyroid gland in early childhood or during the Embryonic period.

6. Choose two incorrect answers. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland performs the following functions:

a) production of hormones;

b) release of hormones into the blood;

c) storage of hormones;

d) release of oxytocin and vasopressin into the blood;

d) release of liberins and statins into the blood.

7. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Below are some diseases (syndromes) caused by endocrine gland dysfunction: 1) gigantism; 2) Pituitary dwarfism (proportionate, without intellectual disability); 3) Graves' disease; 4) acromegaly; 5) tetany. Their occurrence is associated with:

a) hyperfunction of acidophil cells in the anterior pituitary in adults;

b) hypofunction of acidophil cells in the anterior pituitary in children;

c) hypofunction of the parathyroid gland;

d) Hyperfunction of the thyroid gland;

e) hyperfunction of acidophil cells in the anterior pituitary in children.

8. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2

The neurosecretory nuclei of the hypothalamus are located in the: 1) anterior part; 2) middle part of the hypothalamus. They contain the following nuclei:

a) ventromedial;

b) arcuate;

c) paraventricular;

d) dorsomedial;

e) supraoptic;

f) suprachiasmatic.

9. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3

The adrenal cortex contains three morphofunctional zones:

1) zona glomerulosa; 2) zona fasciculata; 3) zona reticularis. The cells of these zones produce:

a) glucocorticoids (cortisone, hydrocortisone, corticosterone);

b) sex Steroids (androgens, estrogens, progesterone);

c) aldosterone;

d) adrenaline;

e) corticotropin.

4.4. Digestive System

1. Choose one incorrect answer

Pancreatic exocrine cells exhibit the following characteristic features:

a) conical shape, with the broad Base of the cell resting on the basement membrane;

b) well-developed granular endoplasmic reticulum located in the basal part of the cell;

c) a basophilic basal zone, known as the homogeneous zone;

d) a well-developed Golgi apparatus in the supranuclear zone;

e) A large number of lysosomes near the nucleus;

f) oxyphilic secretory granules in the apical part forming the so-called zymogen zone.

2. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2

The proper gastric glands contain: 1) chief exocrine cells; 2) parietal exocrine cells. Their morphofunctional characteristics are:

a) acidophilia of the cytoplasm;

b) production of pepsinogen, chymosin, and lipase;

c) production of protons (hydrogen ions);

d) cytoplasm permeated with intracellular secretory canaliculi;

e) presence of secretory granules (Langley) in the apical part, with a basophilic basal part.

3. Select one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, and 3

The digestive tract comprises the following parts: 1) foregut; 2) midgut; 3) hindgut. These include:

a) Oral Cavity;

b) Pharynx;

c) Esophagus;

d) stomach;

e) small intestine;

f) Large Intestine;

g) anal part of the rectum.

4. Select one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

In the tooth germ at the stage of the enamel organ, the following structures are distinguished: 1) outer enamel epithelium cells; 2) inner enamel epithelium cells;

3) stratum intermedium cells of the enamel organ; 4) dental papilla; 5) dental sac. These give rise to:

a) dentin; b) cementum; c) enamel; d) pulp; e) periodontium; f) enamel cuticle.

5. Choose one correct answer

The dental tissue containing 72% inorganic substances and possessing collagen fibers with radial and tangential orientation is:

a) cementum; b) dentin; c) enamel; d) pulp; e) periodontium.

6. Choose two correct answers

The gingival mucosa is characterized by:

a) stratified squamous keratinized epithelium;

b) submucosa containing glands;

c) tall, narrow papillae formed by the lamina propria;

d) muscular layer (muscularis mucosae).

7. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2

The mucosa of the small intestine comprises: 1) villi; 2) crypts. Their epithelial lining contains the following cells:

a) absorptive cells with striated borders (enterocytes);

b) goblet cells;

c) enteroendocrine cells;

d) undifferentiated epithelial cells;

e) exocrine cells with acidophilic granules (Paneth cells).

8. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3

There are three pairs of major Salivary Glands: 1) parotid; 2) submandibular; 3) sublingual. They feature the following types of terminal secretory units:

a) serous; b) mucous; c) mixed.

9. Choose three correct answers

The oral mucosa is characterized by:

a) stratified squamous epithelium (partially keratinized);

b) connective tissue papillae - ingrowth of the lamina propria into the epithelium;

c) well-developed muscular lamina of the mucous membrane;

d) submucosa (in certain areas).

10. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2

During tooth development, the following are formed: 1) odontoblasts; 2) ameloblasts. Their origin:

a) outer cells of the dental enamel organ;

b) mesenchymal cells of the dental follicle;

c) superficial mesenchymal cells of the dental papilla;

d) deep mesenchymal cells of the dental papilla;

e) inner cells of the dental enamel organ.

11. Match one correct answer to each of items 1, 2, 3

Hepatocytes have the following surfaces: 1) biliary; 2) vascular; 3) contact. Their characteristics:

a) form intercellular junctions with neighboring hepatocytes during the formation of a hepatic cords;

b) form the wall of the Bile canaliculus and bear microvilli;

c) face the sinusoidal hemocapillary, border the perisinusoidal space of Disse, and bear microvilli;

d) contact the basement membrane.

12. Match one correct answer to each of items 1, 2, 3, 4

The rectum comprises the following sections and zones: 1) pelvic section; 2) columnar zone of the anal canal; 3) intermediate zone; 4) cutaneous zone of the anal canal. Their epithelial lining:

a) stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium;

b) stratified cuboidal epithelium;

c) simple columnar epithelium;

d) stratified squamous keratinized epithelium.

13. Choose two correct answers

Dental tissues that develop from the dental papilla:

a) cementum; b) pulp; c) periodontium; d) dentin; e) enamel.

14. Choose one incorrect answer

The oral surface of the soft palate has the following features:

а) covered with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium;

б) contains tall papillae formed by the lamina propria of the mucosa;

в) a muscular layer of the mucosa formed by smooth muscle tissue;

г) salivary glands and clusters of adipocytes in the submucosa;

д) thick elastic fibers at the border between the lamina propria and the submucosa.

15. Choose one incorrect answer. The stomach has the following histological features:

а) gastric pits;

б) gastric areas;

в) rugae;

г) glands in the lamina propria of the mucosa;

д) glands in the submucosa;

е) the mucosal surface is lined with a simple columnar mucus-secreting epithelium.

16. Choose one incorrect answer

The hepatic sinusoid capillaries have the following morphofunctional features:

а) larger diameter and higher permeability compared to regular capillaries;

б) receive blood from the portal System of the liver;

в) contain Kupffer cells;

г) they receive only venous blood.

17. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2

The esophagus has Two Types of glands: 1) proper esophageal glands; 2) cardiac esophageal glands. They are located:

а) in the submucosa;

б) in two groups — upper and lower;

в) in the upper third on the ventral wall;

d) in the lamina propria of the mucous membrane.

18. Select the correct answers for items 1 and 2

Tooth germs develop from: 1) oral bay epithelium; 2) mesenchyme. Their derivatives are:

a) enamel;

b) dentin;

c) cementum;

d) odontoblasts;

e) ameloblasts;

f) enamel cuticle; g) pulp.

19. Select the correct answers for items 1, 2, and 3

Parts of the oral cavity: 1) lip; 2) cheek; 3) gingiva. Their structure:

a) a muscular structure covered externally by skin and internally by a mucous membrane, in which maxillary, mandibular, and intermediate zones are distinguished;

b) the structure is based on Striated muscle tissue, comprising cutaneous, intermediate, and mucosal zones;

c) the structure is based on bone tissue, the covering epithelium is stratified squamous with signs of keratinization, and the lamina propria forms high, narrow papillae.

20. Match the correct answers to items 1, 2, 3, and 4

Cells of the pancreatic islet: 1) B (basophilic); 2) A (acidophilic);

3) D (dendritic); 4) F. They produce:

a) Glucagon;

b) cholecystokinin;

c) Insulin;

d) vasoactive intestinal polypeptide;

e) Somatostatin;

f) Pancreatic Polypeptide.

4.5. Respiratory system

1. Choose the single incorrect answer

The air-blood barrier includes:

a) the cytoplasm of the respiratory alveolar cell;

b) the cytoplasm of the secretory alveolar cell;

c) the cytoplasm of the endothelial cell;

d) the alveolocapillary basement membrane.

2. Choose the single correct answer

The pulmonary acinus is the branching territory of:

a) a large bronchus;

b) a small bronchus;

c) a terminal bronchiole;

d) a respiratory bronchiole;

e) an alveolar duct.

3. Choose two incorrect answers

Alveoli are located in the walls of the following pulmonary structures:

a) small and medium Bronchi;

b) terminal bronchioles;

c) first-order respiratory bronchioles;

d) second- and third-order respiratory bronchioles;

e) alveolar ducts;

f) alveolar sacs.

4. Choose the single correct answer

The mucosal epithelium of the distal parts of the bronchial tree contains the following cells:

a) ciliated cells;

b) goblet cells;

c) basal cells;

г) microvillous;

д) non-ciliated;

е) Clara cells;

є) endocrine. Which of these cells produce mucus?

5. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3, 4

The wall of the trachea is composed of the following layers: 1) mucosa; 2) submucosa; 3) fibro-musculo-cartilaginous layer; 4) adventitia. They are formed by the following structures:

а) loose connective tissue;

б) hyaline cartilage rings;

в) Dense connective tissue;

г) mucous and serous glands;

д) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium;

е) smooth myocytes.

4.6. Urinary System

1. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2

Two capillary networks are distinguished in the kidneys: 1) primary; 2) secondary. Their morphofunctional characteristics are:

а) wondrous arterial capillary network;

б) capillary network between an arteriole and a venule;

в) capillary glomerulus of the renal corpuscle;

г) ensures reabsorption and Formation of secondary urine;

д) ensures filtration and Formation of primary urine;

е) peritubular capillary network.

2. Choose three correct answers

The renal filtration barrier includes:

а) fenestrated endothelium of glomerular capillaries;

б) endothelium of peritubular capillaries;

c) the basement membrane of the proximal tubule of the nephron;

d) the trilaminar basement membrane between the glomerular capillary endothelium and podocytes;

e) the podocytes of the visceral layer of the nephron capsule;

f) the cells of the parietal layer of the nephron capsule.

3. Choose three correct answers.

The proximal tubule of the nephron has the following morphofunctional characteristics:

a) it is lined with simple columnar epithelium and features a slit-like lumen;

b) the apical surface of the epithelial cells bears a brush border composed of microvilli;

c) it produces renin;

d) it ensures the reabsorption of glucose, proteins, Water, and electrolytes;

e) it is composed of podocyte cells.

4. Choose one incorrect answer.

The nephron consists of the following segments:

a) Bowman's capsule;

b) proximal convoluted tubule;

c) collecting duct;

d) Distal convoluted tubule;

e) Loop of Henle (thin limb).

5. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, and 3.

The process of Urine Formation includes three phases: 1) filtration; 2) reabsorption; 3) secretion. The renal structures responsible for these processes are:

a) all nephron tubules;

b) only the proximal tubule of the nephron;

c) only the distal tubule of the nephron;

d) the renal corpuscle;

e) the renal collecting ducts;

e) renal papillae.

4.7. Male Reproductive System

1. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2

The Organs of the male reproductive system include: 1) male gonads;

2) accessory organs. These include:

a) Prostate Gland; b) Testes; c) Seminal Vesicles; d) Bulbourethral Glands; e) Penis.

2. Choose one incorrect answer. The spermatic ducts include:

a) ejaculatory duct;

b) convoluted seminiferous tubules;

c) rete Testis;

d) efferent ductules of the testis;

e) duct of the Epididymis;

f) straight seminiferous tubules; g) Ductus deferens.

3. Choose two correct answers

Male Sex Hormones are produced by the following cell types:

a) spermatocytes;

b) interstitial endocrinocytes (Leydig cells);

c) spermatids;

d) myoid cells of the seminiferous tubule wall;

e) cells of the reticular zone of the adrenal cortex.

4. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

The spermatogenic cells of the convoluted seminiferous tubule include: 1) spermatogonia; 2) primary spermatocytes; 3) secondary spermatocytes; 4) spermatids; 5) spermatozoa, with the following characteristics:

a) cells undergo prophase of Meiosis;

b) have a diploid set of chromosomes;

c) small cells formed as a result of the second maturation division, containing a haploid set of chromosomes;

г) cells that have completed the differentiation stage;

д) cells formed as a result of the first maturation division.

5. Match the correct answers to items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Spermatozoa consist of the following parts: 1) HEAD; 2) neck; 3) middle piece; 4) principal piece;

5) end piece of the tail. Structural components of these parts:

a) axoneme (axial filament);

б) acrosome;

в) mitochondrial sheath;

г) proximal centriole;

д) distal centriole;

е) nucleus.

4.8. FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. Choose one correct answer

The ovarian structure containing the zona pellucida, corona radiata, granulosum layer, and cumulus oophorus:

а) primordial follicle; б) primary follicle; в) mature follicle; г) corpus luteum.

2. Choose two correct answers

On the 20th day of the Ovarian-Menstrual cycle, a woman's Ovary may contain:

а) secondary follicles;

б) tertiary follicle;

в) fully developed corpus luteum;

г) regressing corpus luteum;

д) atretic body.

В. Choose two correct answers Cells of the ovarian corpus luteum (luteocytes) are formed from:

а) follicular epithelial cells of the granulosa layer of a postovulatory follicle;

б) cells of the ovarian surface epithelium;

c) cells of the internal theca of a postovulatory follicle;

d) cells of the atretic body.

4. Select three correct answers

It is known that 10 days have passed since the onset of menstruation. This period corresponds to the following morphofunctional CHARACTERISTICS OF THE female reproductive system organs:

a) the ovary produces estrogens;

b) the ovary produces progesterone;

c) a corpus luteum functions in the ovary;

d) a follicle matures in the ovary;

e) the proliferation phase is completed in the endometrium;

f) the secretory phase of the cycle takes place in the endometrium.

5. Select one correct answer

Desquamation of the functional layer of the endometrium during the menstrual phase of the cycle is caused by:

a) estrogens;

b) progesterone;

c) progesterone deficiency;

d) lutropin;

e) follitropin.

4.9. Nervous System

1. Select one correct answer

Neurons located exclusively in the cerebral cortex are:

a) stellate; b) pyramidal; c) fusiform; d) horizontal; e) pyriform.

2. Select two incorrect answers

Spinal ganglia possess the following morphofunctional features:

a) they are composed of pseudounipolar neurons;

b) the neurons function as motor neurons;

c) built of multipolar neurons;

d) neurons are sensory in function;

e) nerve fibers lie in the center of the ganglion;

f) dendrites of ganglion neurons terminate in receptors at the periphery.

B. Choose one correct answer

The efferent neurons of the cerebellar cortex are: a) basket cells; b) large stellate cells; c) granule cells; d) Purkinje cells (pyriform cells).

4. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3

Connective tissue sheaths of a peripheral nerve: 1) endoneurium; 2) perineurium; 3) epineurium. Their localization:

a) surround the entire nerve;

b) surround individual nerve fibers;

c) surround bundles of nerve fibers.

5. Choose one correct answer for each of items 1, 2, 3

Nerve endings are classified into: 1) receptors; 2) effectors; 3) interneuronal synapses. Their characteristics:

a) terminal devices of nerve cell axons that transmit impulses to a muscle fiber or secretory cell;

b) terminal devices of neuron dendrites that perceive stimuli from the external and internal environment;

c) specialized contacts between Nerve Cells that ensure one-way transmission of nerve impulses.

6. Choose two correct answers

The source of Spinal Cord development is:

a) neural plate;

b) ganglionic plate;

c) neural crest;

d) neural tube.

7. Choose one incorrect answer

Autonomic ganglia are characterized by:

a) parenchyma formed by nervous tissue (neurocytes and gliocytes);

b) stroma formed by a connective tissue capsule and connective tissue septa;

c) multipolar neurons scattered throughout the ganglion;

d) pseudounipolar neurons located at the periphery of the ganglion.

8. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2

The organs of the Central Nervous System contain: 1) White matter; 2) Gray matter. They are composed of:

a) neuronal cell bodies;

b) neuroglia;

c) Myelinated nerve fibers;

d) unmyelinated and thin myelinated fibers.

4.10. Sensory Organs

1. Choose one correct answer

The sensory elements of the Organ of Hearing are localized in the:

a) macula of the utricle;

b) ampullary crests;

c) spiral organ;

d) macula of the saccule.

2. Choose one incorrect answer. The dioptric apparatus of the eye includes the following structures:

a) cornea;

b) iris;

c) lens;

d) vitreous body;

e) aqueous humor of the anterior chamber.

III. Choose one correct answer

The tunic of the Eyeball consists of the following layers: stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium, anterior limiting lamina, proper substance (stroma), posterior limiting lamina, simple squamous epithelium. What tunic is this:

a) vascular tunic (choroid);

b) sclera;

c) cornea;

d) iris?

4. Choose one incorrect answer. Sensitive equilibrium elements are localized in: a) spiral organ;

b) macula of the utricle;

c) macula of the saccule;

d) ampullary crests.

5. Choose one correct answer

The cavity of the eyeball located behind the iris is the:

a) anterior chamber of the eye;

b) posterior chamber of the eye;

c) vitreous chamber.

6. Choose one correct answer

A spirally coiled epithelial plate consisting of supporting and Hair receptor cells. It ensures the perception of:

a) angular accelerations;

b) linear accelerations;

c) sound vibrations;

d) vibrational stimuli.

7. Choose one correct answer for items 1, 2, and 3 respectively

The spinal cord comprises: 1) white matter; 2) grey matter; 3) lining of the spinal canal. Their sources of development are:

a) ependymal layer of the neural tube;

b) marginal velum of the neural tube;

c) mantle layer of the neural tube;

d) neural crest.

8. Choose one correct answer. The outer nuclear layer of the retina is formed by:

a) bodies of rod and cone neurons;

b) bodies of bipolar neurons;

c) axons of horizontal neurons;

d) dendrites of ganglion neurons.

9. Match the appropriate structures to items 1, 2, 3

Walls of the cochlear duct of the Inner ear: 1) upper-medial; 2) external;

3) lower. They are formed by:

a) vascular stria lying on the spiral ligament;

b) basilar membrane containing collagen fibers ("auditory strings");

c) vestibular membrane (Reissner's membrane).

10. Choose two incorrect answers

The Pineal Gland has the following morphofunctional characteristics:

а) composed of pinealocytes;

б) composed of gliocytes;

в) composed of epitheliocytes;

г) produces serotonin, melatonin;

д) produces thyroxine;

е) regulates circadian and seasonal rhythms;

є) regulates sexual functions.

11. Choose one correct answer

The area of the retina formed exclusively by nerve fibers. This is:

a) macula lutea;

b) optical part of the retina;

c) non-visual part of the retina;

d) blind spot.

12. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. Types of cells of the Spiral organ of the inner ear: 1) pillar cells; 2) outer phalangeal cells; 3) inner phalangeal cells; 4) outer Hair cells; 5) inner hair cells. Their localization:

a) lie medial to the inner pillars on the inner phalangeal cells;

b) form the inner tunnel;

c) lie lateral to the outer pillars;

d) lie medial to the inner pillars;

e) lie lateral to the outer pillars on the outer phalangeal cells.

4.11. Integumentary System

1. Choose one correct answer. Features of Sweat Glands:

a) ducts are lined with pseudostratified epithelium;

b) acini are composed of serocytes and mucocytes;

c) terminal secretory portions are surrounded by myoepitheliocytes;

d) produce lipid droplets surrounded by the plasmalemma.

2. Choose the correct characteristics for items 1, 2

The skin is composed of two parts: 1) epidermis; 2) dermis. Their composition includes the following layers:

a) reticular;

b) basal;

c) lucidum;

d) papillary;

e) spinous;

f) granular; g) cornified.

3. Indicate the corresponding morphological elements for items 1, 2

A long hair consists of: 1) ROOT; 2) shaft. They are composed of the following structures:

a) cuticle;

b) cortex;

c) medulla.

4. Choose the correct answers for items 1 and 2.

The hair root is surrounded by: 1) the hair follicle; 2) the dermal root sheath (follicular sac). These include the following structures:

a) internal epithelial sheath;

b) external epithelial sheath;

c) cuticle;

d) granular epithelial layer (Henle's layer — Note: Huxley's layer);

e) pale epithelial layer (Henle's layer);

f) inner circular fiber layer; g) outer longitudinal fiber layer.

5. Choose the correct answers for items 1, 2, 3, and 4.

The skin contains various types and varieties of tissues: 1) stratified squamous keratinized epithelium; 2) loose connective tissue; 3) dense irregular connective tissue; 4) adipose tissue. They are found within the following parts and layers of the skin:

a) papillary layer of the dermis;

b) subcutaneous adipose tissue;

c) reticular layer of the dermis;

d) epidermis.